Two point correlation output #626
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I have a quick question regarding the output of the two point correlation (fft) function -namely that according the Torquato, the two point correlation should be equal to your porosity/phase fraction ᶲ at r = 0, then decay to ᶲ^2 as r goes to inf. However, the function in porespy seems to output something close to 100% probability at r = 0, decaying down the the void fraction ᶲ as r goes to inf. My question is then whether the probability output of the function is supposed to be the same as the void fraction at r=0, or if they are two different properties that I am getting mixed up. If they are two separate properties, do you know what the relationship is between them? Note, that the example code on the website demonstrates what I am talking about. https://porespy.org/examples/metrics/tutorials/two_point_correlation.html?highlight=two%20point Thanks in advance, |
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Surprizingly you are the first person to call us out on this. In our view, the y-axis is the probability that 2 pixels are in the same phase. So the odds that two pixels are in the same phase should be 1 at r=0, and approach the porosity as r->inf. Also, approaching y=0 at r->inf, as you suggest, would result in some negative correlation values since the function oscillates around the global porosity, which seems odd to me. HOWEVER, I concede that we are not experts in the use of this function, so if our interpretation is a problem, we are open to change. Hopefully I am correct in thinking that there is a direct scaling to get to our data to map onto the range you suggest, like |
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Surprizingly you are the first person to call us out on this. In our view, the y-axis is the probability that 2 pixels are in the same phase. So the odds that two pixels are in the same phase should be 1 at r=0, and approach the porosity as r->inf. Also, approaching y=0 at r->inf, as you suggest, would result in some negative correlation values since the function oscillates around the global porosity, which seems odd to me. HOWEVER, I concede that we are not experts in the use of this function, so if our interpretation is a problem, we are open to change. Hopefully I am correct in thinking that there is a direct scaling to get to our data to map onto the range you suggest, like
(y-phi)*ph…